- 1. 1. Means not only being exact, but also, non-commission of errors.
A) Accurate
B) Concise
C) Specific
D) Factual
- 2. 2. Is a thing that has actually happened or that is really true.
A) Concise
B) Brief
C) Accurate
D) Factual
- 3. 3. The official font style used by the PNP?
A) Calibri
B) Arial
C) Arial black
D) Typewriter
- 4. 4. Size of the police blotter.
A) 14x16 or 30cm x 40cm
B) 16x14 or 30cm x 40cm
C) 14x17 or 30cm x 40cm
D) 17x14 or 30cm x 40cm
- 5. 5. The official font size used by the PNP?
A) 11
B) 13
C) 22
D) 12
- 6. 6. The color of pen usually used by the PNP, EXCEPT;
A) Blue-black
B) Blue
C) Black-red
D) Black
- 7. 7. is a record of daily events occuring within the territories/ jurisdiction of a given police unit or command. It contains material detail concerning the event for legal and statistical purposes.
A) Initial Report
B) Police Blotter
C) Spot Report
D) Blotter
- 8. 8. No erasures shall be made on the entries. Corrections are made by drawing one_____over such word or phrases and the actual entry initiated by the police officer making the correction.
A) Horizontal line
B) Waive line
C) Circle line
D) Vertical line
- 9. 9. No line of space shall be left blank between any two entries.
A) False
B) True
C) Maybe true
D) Absolutely true
- 10. 10. What is the content of first column in Police Blotter?
A) Disposition
B) Time
C) Date
D) Entry no
- 11. 11. These questions include the complete and correct name of all those who were involved in the incident such as the victim/s, suspect/s, witness/es and whosoever may be listed as present during the incident, or may not be present, but have knowledge about the said incident.
A) Where
B) Who
C) How
D) Why
E) When
- 12. 12. What is the content of second column in Police Blotter?
A) Incidents/Events
B) Date
C) Disposition
D) Time
- 13. 13. Police reports sometime indicate the crime committed based on RPC like Murder, Homicide, or Rape, among others. It is the duty of the investigator-on-case to determine what crime was committed.
A) Where
B) What
C) When
D) How
E) Why
- 14. 14. What is the content of third column in Police Blotter?
A) Time
B) Entry no
C) Date
D) Incidents/Events
- 15. 15. What is the content of fifth column in Police Blotter?
A) Entry no
B) Disposition
C) Time
D) Incidents/Events
- 16. 16. What is the content of fourth column in Police Blotter?
A) Incidents/Events
B) Disposition
C) Date
D) Time
- 17. 17. These questions are concerned with the geographical location of the crime scene, property, or evidence. Describe in detail where the incident exactly happened, e.g. "In the bathroom of a bungalow house located at Block 41, Lot 3, Phase 6 Masangkay Subdivision, Bulihan, City of Malolos, Bulacan"
A) What
B) Why
C) Where
D) When
E) How
- 18. 18. These questions include the date and time when the felony/offense/infraction was committed, property found, suspect apprehended,
A) Who
B) What
C) Why
D) When
- 19. 19. These questions provide the object or desire which motivated the commission of the crime. In crimes against persons, the usual object -transitionincludes revenge, ransom, and sexual pleasure, among others. In crimes against property, the reason may be to acquire money and property.
A) Why
B) How
C) What
D) Where
- 20. 20. These questions pertain to the manner in which the crime was committed.This shall include the weather, lighting, sounds, activities in the vicinity of the incident, a description of the circumstances prevailing before, during, and after the incident and all other peculiar details that come to the senses of the trained police responder.
A) Who
B) Where
C) Why
D) How
- 21. 21. While instigalion exempts, entrapment does not; the difference between the twe beings that in entrapment the crime had already been committed while in instigation the crime was not yet and would not have been, committed were it not for the instigation by the peace officer, An Inquiry, judicial or otherwise, for the discovery and collection of facis concerning the matter or matters involved. It is the process of inquiring, eliciting, soliciting, and getting vital information/ facts/ circumstances in order to establish the truth.
A) Investigation
B) Interrogation
C) Entrapment
D) Interview
- 22. 22. Refers to an immediate initial investigative or incident report addressed to Higher Headquarters pertaining to the commission of the crime, occurrence of natural or man-made disaster or unusual incidents involving loss of lives and damage of properties.
A) Police blotter
B) Investigation
C) Spot report
D) Shadowing
- 23. 23. Shall/refer to any law enforcement personnel belonging to the duly mandated law enforcement agencies (LEA) tasked to enforce Republic Act 9208 such as officers, investigators, and agents of the Philippine NationalPolice, National Bureau of Investigation, Bureau of Immigration.
A) Investigator/officer
B) Investigator-on-case
C) SOCO
D) Law enforcement
- 24. 24. Requisites. Three prerequisites to judicial notice of any suggested fact have been stated, namely, 1) that it must be a matter of common and general knowledge, 2) that it must be will and authoritatively settled, and not doubtful or uncertain, and 3) that it must be known to be within the limits of the jurisdiction of the court.
A) Judicial notice
B) Summon
C) Court notice
D) Judiciary notice
- 25. 25. The word "jurisdiction" as used in the Constitution and statues means jurisdiction over the subject matter only, unless an exception arises by reasons of its employment in a broader sense.
A) Criminal investigation
B) Criminal jurisdiction
C) Judiciary
D) Jurisdiction
- 26. 26. A venue or place where the alleged crime/incident/event has been committed.
A) Scene of the crime
B) Place
C) Crime Scene
D) Venue
- 27. 27. It is the collection of facts in order to accomplish the three- fold aims-to identify the guilty party; to locate the guilty party, and to provide evidence of his (suspect) guilt.
A) Investigation
B) Criminal investigation
C) Criminal liability
D) Court procedure
- 28. 28. A public safety officer who is tasked to conduct the investigation of all criminal cases is provided for and embodied under the Revised Penal Code/Criminal Laws and Special Laws which are criminal in nature A well-trained, disciplined and experienced professional in the field of criminal investigation duties and responsibilities.
A) Criminal investigator
B) Criminal investigation
C) Investigator
D) Investigator-on-case
- 29. 29. authority to hear and try a particular offense and impose the punishment for it.
A) Criminal jurisdiction
B) Jurisdiction
C) Punishment
D) Criminal liability
- 30. 30. One What defines crime treats of their nature and provides for their punishment, Punishment, in this sense refers strictly to the penalty imposed.
A) Offense
B) Act and omission
C) Criminal law
D) Status offense
- 31. 31. Requisites. Under Art.4 par. 1 RPC, a person may be held criminally liable even if the injurious result be greater than that intended, provided these requisites concur 1) an intentional felony has been committed, and 2) the wrong done to the victim be the direct, natural, and logical consequence of the felony committed.
A) Punishment
B) Fine
C) Criminal liability
D) Civil liability
- 32. 32. It consists in the failure to take such precautions or advance measures in the performance of an act as the most common prudence would suggest, whereby injury is caused to persons or to property.
A) Criminal liability
B) Civil liability
C) Criminal negligence
D) Imprudence
- 33. 33. A record or log where all types of operational and undercover dispatches shall be recorded containing the five "W"s (WHO. WHAT, WHERE, WHEN AND WHY) and one "H" (HOW) of an information.
A) Spot report
B) Blotter entry
C) Police blotter
D) Police report
- 34. 34. A location where the search is conducted which is duly authorized by the PNP to deter/prevent the commission of crimes, enforce the law, and for other legitimate purposes.
A) Checkpoint
B) Police checkpoint
C) Post
D) Posting
- 35. 35. A Philippine diplomatic and consular position such as an Embassy or Consulate.
A) Government
B) Post
C) Police checkpoint
D) State
- 36. 36. Comprehensive forensic inquiry specifically on a bombing incident through conduct of various investigative techniques which involves recovery of physical evidence mainly for reconstruction of explosive fragments recovered to determine the device components, the modus operandi and subsequently to identify the perpetrator(s).
A) Post-blast investigation operation
B) Post-blast team
C) Post-blast investigation(PBI)
D) Post-blast investigation team(PBIT)
- 37. 37. Composed of the criminal investigator(s) assisted by the bomb technicians/EOD personnel and SOCO personnel.
A) Investigator
B) Post-blast investigation team
C) SOCO team
D) Post-blast investigation(PBI)
- 38. 38. Elective and appointive officials and employees, permanent or temporary, whether in the classified at unclassified or exemption service receiving compensation, event nominal, from the government.
A) Police officer
B) Officer
C) Public officer
D) Law enforcer
- 39. 39. A notice to the defendant Informing him that an action has been commenced against him which he must ariswar within a specified time, or else judgment with is taken against him. It is the means by which the defendant is afforded an opportunity, and rights, and thereby has them safe in the defense of his person, property, and rights, and thereby have thuse safeguarded. The principal object of this process is to give the party in whom it is addressed a notice of proceedings against him.
A) Summons
B) Judicial notice
C) Notice
D) Service of summons
- 40. 40. Includes the employment, use, persuasion, inducement, enlicement or coercion of a child to engage in, or assist another person to engage in, sexual intercourse or lascivious conduct or the molestation, prostitution, or incest with children.
A) Physical abuse
B) Emotional abuse
C) Sexual abuse
D) Act of lasciviousness
- 41. 41. An Inteligence report rendered regarding any illegal activity or violation of laws being observed by intelligence operatives within a given area of responsibility. This is the usual basis of case operations hence information received should be cared, validated, counter-checked, analyzed and evaluated.
A) Service of summons
B) Summary of information(SOI)
C) Confidential documents
D) Supporting documents
- 42. 42. A doctrine in criminal procedure which holds that where a new fact (such as a deformity) for which the defendant is responsible has supervened and this new fact charges the character of the crime first imputed to him, so that, together with the facts previously existing, if constitutes a new and distinct offense, no double Jeopardy exists.
A) Supervening event
B) Supporting documents
C) Summary of information(SOI)
D) Supervising event
- 43. 43. Any paper or document which is required to be submitted with the passport application supporting claims to Filipino citizenship to complete the application for a passport without which such application would be deemed incomplete or otherwise become subject to denial by the issuing authority.
A) Documents
B) Supporting documents
C) Service of summons
D) Summary of information(SOI)
- 44. 44. Individual(s) who islare pointed to be by the victim(s) and witness(es) to have had committed the crime in issue. Subject person is not considered as a criminal untess otherwise his/her conviction is pronounced in the court.
A) Victim or victims
B) Accuse or Accused
C) Offender or offenders
D) Suspect or suspects
- 45. 45. The report rendered by an interrogator investigator which contains the following Information of subjects: a) Personal and family background; b) Educational background, c) Professional background, d) Criminal activities associates, armaments, e) Plans,
A) Tactical investigation report
B) Tactical interrogation report
C) Tactical report
D) Police report
- 46. 46. Any person who commits an act punishable under the Revised Penal Code hereby sowing and creating a condition of widespread and extraordinary fear and panic among the populace, in order to coerce the government to give in to an unlawful demand shall be guilty of the crime of terrorism.
A) Tourist
B) UNSCRUPULOUS
C) Terrorist
D) Terrorism
- 47. 47. Shall refer to the Philippine government and its relevant government agencies, organizations and entities.
A) The state
B) The government
C) The nation
D) The united nation
- 48. 48. -The recruitment, transport, transfer or harboring or receipt of persons with or without consent on knowledge, within or across national borders, by means of threat or use of force, or ather forms of coercion, abduction, fraud, deception, abuse of power or of pusition, taking advantage of the vulnerability of the person, or, the giving or receiving of payments or benefits to achieve the consent of the person having control over another person for the purpose of exploitation or the prostitution of others or others forms of sexual exploitation, forced labor, or services. slavery, servitude or the removal or sale of organs.
A) Child trafficking prostitution
B) Trafficking in persons
C) Prostitution
D) Human trafficking
- 49. 49. Unprincipled or not scrupulous. So, a person who is without scruple would be one who is lacking in moral integrity, or in principles, not adhering to ethical standards, careless; imprudent.
A) Unscrupolous
B) Terrorism
C) Scruple
D) Uncrippled
- 50. 50. The aggrieved party
A) Victim
B) Suspect
C) Prosecutor
D) Offender
- 51. 51. Venues deals with the locality, the place where the suit may be had, while jurisdiction treats of the power of the court to decide the case on the merits.
A) Scene
B) Event
C) Venue
D) Place
- 52. 53. The person to whom any demand has been or is likely to be made by the kidnapper and who is expected by the offender to respond
A) Victim communicator
B) Communicator
C) Translator
D) Suspect communicator
- 53. 54. - A detailed account of the victim's lifestyle and personality assists in determining the nature of the disappearance, the risk level of the victim and the type of person who could have committed the crime. Complete information regarding the victim's physical description, normal behavioral patterns, the family dynamics, and known friends and acquaintances should be obtained as soon as possible.
A) Affidavit
B) Voluntary surrender
C) Victimology/ victim profiling
D) Waiver
- 54. 55. A surrender to be voluntary, as mitigating circumstances in criminal law, must be spontaneous, showing the Intent of the accused to submit him unconditionally to the authorities.
A) Involuntary surrender
B) Affidavit
C) Waiver
D) Voluntary surrender
- 55. 56. The doctrine of waiver, from its nature, applies ordinarily to all rights of privileges to which a person is legally entitled, provided such rights or privileges belong to the individual and are intended solely for his benefit.
A) Suffix
B) Affix
C) Waiver
D) Affidavit
- 56. 57. It involves PNP initiated project and activities geared towards improving the peace and order situation and professionalizing the people.
A) Investigator
B) Officer
C) Public officer
D) Law enforcement
- 57. 58. Summary judgment. The kind of affidavit necessary to support a summary judgment is that affidavit from which it may be clearly drawn that certain fact pleaded by either party are certain, undisputed and indubitable which dispense with the hearing or trial of the case.
A) Affidavit
B) Intrumentation
C) Summary of information
D) Waiver
- 58. 59. It is a report that may be rendered after any successful police operation that leads to the arrest of any member or some members of syndicated crime group.
A) After SOCO report
B) Surveillance
C) After operation report
D) Agent
- 59. 60. It is a report rendered by the Team Leader of the SOCO that conducted the scene of the crime operations, processing or investigation.
A) After operation report
B) Blotter report
C) After SOCO report
D) Police intelligence report
- 60. 61. A person who binds himself to render some service or to do something in representation or on behalf of another, with the consent or authority of the latter.
A) Agent
B) Informer
C) Informant
D) Secret agent
- 61. 62. Any person who by direct provision of law or by election or by appointment by competent authority, is charged with the maintenance of public order and the protection and security of life and property, Any person who comes to the aid of persons in authority.
A) Informant
B) Secret agent
C) Agent
D) Agent of person in authority
- 62. 63. It is a report rendered by a documented agent who answers an intelligence requirement.
A) Operational report
B) Document report
C) Agent's report
D) Informant's report
- 63. 64. To establish alibi, a defendant must not only show that he was present at some other place at about the time of the alleged crime, but also that he was at such other place for so long a time that it was impossible for him to have been at the place where the crime was committed, either before, during, or after the time he was at such other place.
A) Alibi
B) Alleged
C) Defense
D) Allibi
- 64. 65. The word "alleged" or "allegedly connotes something "claimed." It leaves the truth of the averment an open question.
A) Amend
B) Alter
C) Alleged
D) Alligance
- 65. 66. To add, change, substitute or omit something from a pleading or instrument.
A) Alter
B) Erased
C) Answer
D) Concealment
- 66. 67. The word "answer" in Sec. 1 Rule 19. Rules of Court, envisions or includes the affirmative and/or special defenses and counterclaim contained therein.
A) Question
B) Alter
C) Response
D) Answer
- 67. 68. The groundwork of the written law. The science of law, the particular science of giving a wise interpretation to the laws and making a just application of them to all cases as they arise. In an untechnical sense, the term sometimes means Cases Law.
A) Jurisdiction
B) Jurisprudence
C) Imprudence
D) Negligence
- 68. 69. Any vehicle propelled by means other than muscular power using the public highways, but excepting rollers, trolley cars, street sweepers, sprinklers, lawnmowers, bulldozers, graders, forklifts, amphibian trucks and cranes if not used on public highways; also, vehicles which run only on rails or tracks, and tractors, trailers and traction engines of all kinds used exclusively for agricultural purposes.
A) Motor vehicle
B) Vehicle
C) Bicycle
D) Motor
- 69. 70. Any person who shall kill another person with evident premeditation, treachery, superior strength, aid of armed men, consideration of prize and reward of promise and by means of fire, poison, explosion and other means involving great waste and ruin, (Under Art 248, RPC)
A) Homicide
B) Murder
C) Consumated
D) Attempted
- 70. 71. Evidence is negative when the witness states that he did not see or know the occurrence of a fact.
A) Neglect
B) Positive evidence
C) Negative evidence
D) Evidence
- 71. 72. Failure to provide, for reasons other than poverty, adequate food, clothing, shelter, basic education or medical care so as to seriously endanger the physical, mental, social and emotional growth and development of the child,
A) Neglect
B) Imprudence
C) Negligence
D) Neglect of duty
- 72. 73. The omission or refusal, without sufficient excuse, to perform an act or duty, which it was the officer's legal obligation to perform.
A) Neglect of duty
B) Misfeasance
C) Negligence
D) Malfeasance
- 73. 74. One of the most crucial steps in Kidnap for Ransom cases which is often overlooked nr unideramphasized. The objective is to identify and interview in person all individuals in the area where the victim was kidnapped and/or last known sighting area during the window of opportunity (last time seen until the time discovered missing).
A) Evidence
B) Neighborhood investigation
C) Occular inspection
D) Criminal investigation
- 74. 75. - An auxiliary remedy which the law affords the parties or the court to reach an enlightened determination of the case, either to clear a doubt, to reach a conclusion, or to find the truth, by viewing the object related to the fact in issue.
A) Temporary inspection
B) Inspection
C) Occular inspection
D) Regular inspection
- 75. 76. In oral defamation of libel, the "offended party referred to in par. 4 Art 360, RPC, and in Sec 4, Rule 110, Rules of Court is the person appearing to have been defamed, discredited, damaged, and prejudiced by the imputation made. The offender party" who intervenes in a criminal action, under Sec 15 Rule 110, Rules of Court, is the person who is entitled to civil îndemnity in the civil action arising out of the criminal act for which the accused is charged.
A) Suspect
B) Offended party
C) Victim
D) Defense party
- 76. 77. Includes natural and juridical persons, unless the context indicates otherwise.
A) Person
B) People
C) Individual
D) Human being
- 77. 78. Person in authority refers to all those persons who by direct provision of law or by appointment of competent authority are charged with the maintenance of public order and the protection and security of life and property, as well as all persons who come to the aid of agents of authority; it being public functionaries are entitled to be considered as agents of authority, it being understood, nevertheless, that in order that the persons who come to the aid of an agerit of authority may be considered as agents of muthonty, it is an essential condition that they lond such assistance, by virtue of an order of request of such agent of authority.
A) Agent
B) Person in authority
C) Person
D) Agent of person in authority
- 78. 79. The conduct of examining the engine and chassis number of a motor vehicle by a Crime Laboratory Technician andior Police Officer through the used of the naked eyes to determine whether there is a sign of tampering/alteration.
A) Physical injury
B) Physiological examination
C) Physical examination
D) Physical evidence examination
- 79. 80. Evidence addressed to the senses of the court that are capable of being exhibited, examined, or viewed by the court. This includes but not limited to fingerprints, body fluids, explosives, hazardous chemicals, snilbumed debris, bombs, electronic parts used in the commission of the crime.
A) Physical injury
B) Instrumentation
C) Physical examination
D) Physical evidence
- 80. 81. Harm done to a child's psychological or intellectual functioning which may be exhibited by severe anxiety, depression, withdrawal or outward aggressive behavior, or a combination of said behaviors which may be demonstrated by a change in behavior, emotional response, or cognition.
A) Physical examination
B) Physical injury
C) Physical evidence
D) Instrumentation
- 81. 82. The exact physical location where a heat source and fuel comes in contact with each other and a fire begins.
A) Appearance
B) Arbitrary
C) Ante mortem
D) Point of origin
A) Ante mortem
B) Arbitrary
C) Point of origin
D) Appearance
- 83. 84. Voluntary submission to a court's jurisdiction.
A) Appearance
B) Point of origin
C) Arbitrary
D) Ante mortem
- 84. 85. Willful and unreasoning action, without consideration of and in disregard of the facts and circumstances of the case. Action is not arbitrary when exercised honestly and upon consideration where there is room for two opinions, however much it may be believed that an erroneous conclusion was reached.
A) Arrest
B) Arbitrary
C) Arbitrary detention
D) Search
- 85. 86. Arbitrary detention begins not merely from the moment a person is locked up in prison cell but from the moment such person is deprived of his liberty without legal grounds. And it ends only when such person is absolutely freed from any restraint on his person.
A) Search and seizure
B) Arbitrary detention
C) Arrest
D) Arbitrary
- 86. 87. It is the taking of a person into custody in order that he may be bound to answer for the commission of an offense.
A) Apprehension
B) Warrant of arrest
C) Arrest
D) Search and seizure
- 87. 88. is defined as the intentional or malicious destruction of a property by fire. It is also defined as the criminal burning of property.
A) Arson
B) Fire
C) Ignition
D) Ignite
- 88. 89. term 'assault" in Sec. 87 (b) (2), Judiciary Act, on the original jurisdiction of Municipal Courts, means physical injuries. It does not refer to the crime of direct assault in Art. 148 of the Revised Penal Code.
A) Direct assault
B) Assault
C) Attempt
D) Indirect assault
- 89. 90. Intent is a quality of the mind and implies a purpose only, while attempt implies an effort to carry that purpose into execution.
A) Reason
B) Desire
C) Attempt
D) Motive
- 90. 91. A person or persons, or a body, exercising power or command, for those upon whom the people have conferred authority.
A) Authorized
B) Authority
C) Unauthorized
D) Allowed personnel
- 91. 92. A declaration of by what means and by whom the declarant was injured is within the purview of the term "the cause of the declarant's death" in a dying declaration.
A) Dying declaration
B) Cause of death
C) Cadaver
D) Time of death
- 92. 93. The word "bail" as used in the prohibition against excessive ball is inadequately translated by the word "fianza," as bail implies a particular kind of bond that is to say, a bond given to secure the personal liberty of one held in restraint upon a criminal or quasi criminal charge.
A) Bail
B) Fine
C) Assurance
D) Punishment
- 93. 94. A corpse or a dead body.
A) Cadaver
B) Cause of death
C) Time of death
D) Dead body
- 94. 95. An Identification tag attached to the cadaver containing tag number, name (if identified), date/time & place of recovery. date/time/type/place of incident, gender, other pertinent information, and name of investigator. The tag shall be made using suitable materials which can be used of in all types of weather.
A) Dying declaration
B) Cadaver
C) Cause of death
D) Cadaver tag
- 95. 96. A cause of action is the act or omission by which a party violates a right of another (Sec 2, Rule 2 of the Rules of Court). The terrn "cause of action" has two elements: 1) the right of plaintiff, and 2) the violation of such right by the Defendant.
A) Motive
B) Cause of force
C) Cause of death
D) Cause of action
- 96. 97. The taking, with intent to gain, of a motor vehicle belonging to another without the latter's consent, or by means of violence against or intimidation of persons, or by using force upon things.
A) Pick lock
B) Kidnapping
C) Carnapping
D) Ransom
- 97. 98. The person responsible for and in charge of the investigation of a case.
A) Investigator
B) Investigating officer
C) Case officer
D) Public officer
- 98. 99. A definite target-specific activity conducted in relation to an intelligence project under which it is affected. Several case operations may fall under one intelligence project.
A) Command post
B) Operation plan
C) Intelligence plan
D) Case operational plan
- 99. 100. report which is used as a means of formal coordination to be made by the investigating agency with the police unit or military unit having operational jurisdiction over the place where a police case operation shall be conducted.
A) Cardinal report
B) Participation report
C) Coordinating report
D) Coordination report
- 100. 101. Latin for the "body of the crime it is the legal term used to describe/physical/or material evidence that a crime has been committed such as the corpse of a murder victim or the cleaned of a torched building. It is used to refer to the underlying principle that, without evidence of a crime having been committed, it would be unjust to convict someone.
A) Stolen property
B) Corpus delicti
C) Inflagrante delicto
D) Fruit of poisonous tree
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